NEW NSE7_PBC-7.2 EXAM NOTES & RELIABLE NSE7_PBC-7.2 TEST LABS

New NSE7_PBC-7.2 Exam Notes & Reliable NSE7_PBC-7.2 Test Labs

New NSE7_PBC-7.2 Exam Notes & Reliable NSE7_PBC-7.2 Test Labs

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Fortinet NSE7_PBC-7.2 Certification Exam is intended for professionals who work in public cloud security roles, such as security engineers, cloud security architects, and security operations center (SOC) professionals. NSE7_PBC-7.2 exam is an excellent opportunity for these professionals to demonstrate their expertise in deploying and managing security solutions for public cloud environments. Fortinet NSE 7 - Public Cloud Security 7.2 certification confirms that the individual possesses the required knowledge and skills to secure public cloud environments using Fortinet security solutions.

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Fortinet NSE 7 - Public Cloud Security 7.2 Sample Questions (Q44-Q49):

NEW QUESTION # 44
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows an active-passive high availability FortiGate pair with external and internal Azure load balancers. There is no SDN connector used in this solution Which configuration should the administrator implement?

  • A. Probe IP address with one BGP route
  • B. Probe IP address with two static routes
  • C. Lambda IP address with one static route.
  • D. Public load balancer IP address with two BGP routes.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Based on the provided exhibit showing an active-passive FortiGate High Availability (HA) pair with external and internal Azure load balancers and without the use of an SDN connector, the administrator should implement a Probe IP address with two static routes (Option B). Probe IP Address: Azure load balancers use a health probe to determine the health of the instances in the backend pool. The health probe ensures that the load balancer only directs traffic to the active (primary) FortiGate in an HA pair.
Two Static Routes: Given that this is an active-passive setup, static routing should be used to ensure deterministic traffic flow. Two static routes would be configured to ensure that traffic can flow to the active unit and be correctly routed to the protected subnets in failover scenarios.


NEW QUESTION # 45
An administrator would like to keep track of sensitive data files located in the Amazon Web Services (AWS) S3 bucket and protect it from malware. Which Fortinet product or feature should the administrator use?

  • A. FortiCNP DLP policies
  • B. FortiCNP web sensitive polices
  • C. FortiCNP compliance scanning policies
  • D. FortiCNP application control policies

Answer: A

Explanation:
To keep track of sensitive data files located in AWS S3 buckets and protect them from malware, the administrator should use:
C . FortiCNP DLP policies.
Data Loss Prevention (DLP): DLP policies are designed to detect and prevent unauthorized access or sharing of sensitive data. In the context of AWS S3, DLP policies can be used to scan for sensitive information stored in S3 objects and enforce protective measures to prevent data exfiltration or compromise.
FortiCNP Integration: FortiCNP is Fortinet's cloud-native protection platform that offers security and compliance solutions across cloud environments. By applying DLP policies within FortiCNP, the administrator can ensure sensitive data within S3 is monitored and protected consistently.


NEW QUESTION # 46
Refer to the exhibit

An administrator deployed a FortiGate-VM in a high availability (HA)
(active/passive) architecture in Amazon Web Services (AWS) using Terraform for testing purposes. At the same time, the administrator deployed a single Linux server using AWS Marketplace Which two options are available for the administrator to delete all the resources created in this test? (Choose two.)

  • A. The administrator must manually delete the Linux server.
  • B. Use the terraform validate command.
  • C. Use the terraform destroy all command.
  • D. Use the terraform destroy command

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Explanation
A: Use the terraform destroy command. This command is used to remove all the resources that were created using the Terraform configuration1. It is the opposite of the terraform apply command, which is used to create resources. The terraform destroy command will first show a plan of what resources will be destroyed, and then ask for confirmation before proceeding. The command will also update the state file to reflect the changes. D.
The administrator must manually delete the Linux server. This is because the Linux server was not deployed using Terraform, but using AWS Marketplace2. Therefore, Terraform does not have any information about the Linux server in its state file, and cannot manage or destroy it. The administrator will have to use the AWS console or CLI to delete the Linux server manually.
The other options are incorrect because:
There is no terraform validate command. The correct command is terraform plan, which is used to show a plan of what changes will be made by applying the configuration3. However, this command does not delete any resources, it only shows what will happen if terraform apply or terraform destroy is run.
There is no terraform destroy all command. The correct command is terraform destroy, which will destroy all the resources in the current configuration by default1. There is no need to add an all argument to the command.


NEW QUESTION # 47
What are three important steps required to get Terraform ready using Microsoft Azure Cloud Shell? (Choose three.)

  • A. Set up a storage account in Azure.
  • B. use the -O command to download Terraform.
  • C. Subscribe to Terraform in Azure.
  • D. Use the wget (te=aform vession) command to upload Terraform.
  • E. Move the Terraform file to the bin directory.

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:
To get Terraform ready using Microsoft Azure Cloud Shell, you need to perform the following steps:
* Set up a storage account in Azure. This is required to store the Terraform state file in a blob container, which enables collaboration and persistence of the infrastructure configuration1.
* Use the wget (terraform_version) command to upload Terraform. This command downloads the latest version of Terraform from the official website and saves it as a zip file in the current directory2.
* Move the Terraform file to the bin directory. This step extracts the Terraform executable from the zip file and moves it to the bin directory, which is part of the PATH environment variable. This allows you to run Terraform commands from any directory in Cloud Shell2.
The other options are incorrect because:
* You do not need to use the -O command to download Terraform. This command is used to specify a different output file name for the downloaded file, but it is not necessary for this task3.
* You do not need to subscribe to Terraform in Azure. Terraform is an open-source tool that can be used with any cloud provider, and there is no subscription or registration required to use it with Azure4. References:
* Updating the route table and adding an IAM policy
* Configure Terraform in Azure Cloud Shell with Bash
* wget(1) - Linux man page
* Terraform by HashiCorp


NEW QUESTION # 48
Refer to the exhibit

An administrator deployed an HA active-active load balance sandwich in Microsoft Azure. The setup requires configuration synchronization between devices- What are two outcomes from the configured settings? (Choose two.)

  • A. FortiGate A and FortiGate B are two independent devices.
  • B. It does not synchronize the FortiGate hostname
  • C. By default, FortiGate uses FGCP
  • D. FortiGate-VM instances are scaled out automatically according to predefined workload levels.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
B: FortiGate A and FortiGate B are two independent devices. This means that they are not part of a cluster or a high availability group, and they do not share the same configuration or state information. They are configured as standalone FortiGates with standalone configuration synchronization enabled1. This feature allows them to synchronize most of their configuration settings with each other, except for some settings that identify the FortiGate to the network, such as the hostname1. D. It does not synchronize the FortiGate hostname. This is one of the settings that are excluded from the standalone configuration synchronization, as mentioned above. The hostname is a unique identifier for each FortiGate device, and it should not be changed by the synchronization process1.
The other options are incorrect because:
* FortiGate-VM instances are not scaled out automatically according to predefined workload levels. This is a feature of the auto scaling solution for FortiGate-VM on Azure, which requires a different deployment and configuration than the one shown in the exhibit2. The exhibit shows a static deployment of two FortiGate-VM instances behind an Azure load balancer, which does not support auto scaling.
* By default, FortiGate does not use FGCP. FGCP stands for FortiGate Clustering Protocol, which is used to synchronize configuration and state information between FortiGate devices in a cluster or a high availability group3. However, the exhibit shows that the FortiGates are not in a cluster or a high availability group, and they use standalone configuration synchronization instead of FGCP.


NEW QUESTION # 49
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